A 23-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 30 weeks gestation comes to the emergency department after having a sudden gush of clear vaginal fluid. The patient continues to have leakage of clear fluid but no abdominal pain or vaginal bleeding. Fetal movement has been normal. The patient had intermittent vaginal bleeding during the first trimester but no other complications during this pregnancy. Her prior pregnancy ended in a term vaginal delivery. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 82/min. The uterine fundus is nontender. Sterile speculum examination reveals a closed cervix and vaginal pooling of nitrazine-positive, clear fluid. Ultrasound reveals a fetus in the breech presentation and decreased amniotic fluid. Fetal heart rate tracing has a baseline of 130/min, moderate variability, and no decelerations. Tocometry shows no contractions. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) 17-Hydroxyprogesterone
B) Cerclage
C) Cesarean delivery
D) Corticosteroids
E) External cephalic version
F) Induction of labor
Correct Answer:
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