A 24-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 20 weeks gestation, comes to the office for a routine fetal anatomy ultrasound. The patient feels well and has had no contractions, vaginal bleeding, or leakage of fluid. Fetal movement is normal. Her prior pregnancy was uncomplicated and ended in a vaginal delivery at 41 weeks gestation after labor induction for a postterm pregnancy. She has no chronic medical conditions, and her only medication is a daily prenatal vitamin. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 72/min. The uterine fundus is at the umbilicus and is nontender. Ultrasound reveals a singleton fetus in breech presentation with a heart rate of 148/min. The lower edge of the placenta is 3 cm from the internal cervical os, and cervical length is 1.8 cm (normal: >2.5) . Amniotic fluid index is 18 cm. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Cerclage placement
B) Expectant management only
C) Fetal fibronectin testing
D) Inpatient bed rest
E) Terbutaline tocolysis
F) Vaginal progesterone
Correct Answer:
Verified
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