A 38-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, comes to the office for her first prenatal visit. Her last menstrual period was 14 weeks ago. The patient has had nausea and vomiting occasionally over the past few weeks but no other symptoms. She has not seen a health care provider in years but has no known medical conditions. Her only daily medication is a prenatal vitamin. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Supine blood pressure is 142/96 mm Hg and pulse is 92/min. Repeat measurement 15 minutes later is 138/92 mm Hg and pulse is 88/min. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. Pelvic examination shows an enlarged uterus consistent with 14 weeks gestation. There is mild bilateral ankle edema. Doppler ultrasound shows a fetal heart rate of 160/min. Urinalysis is negative for protein and glucose.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's hypertension?
A) Chronic hypertension
B) Complete molar pregnancy
C) Gestational hypertension
D) Normal physiologic changes of pregnancy
E) Preeclampsia without severe features
Correct Answer:
Verified
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