A 30-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 1 aborta 1, at 26 weeks gestation comes to the office for evaluation of increased vaginal discharge that started yesterday. She now changes her pad every hour and has noticed some spotting. Her initial prenatal visit was 2 weeks ago, and laboratory evaluation revealed a positive urine culture. The patient has not started her antibiotics because she has no symptoms. Her last delivery was 2 years ago via term cesarean delivery for recurrent late fetal decelerations. Vital signs are normal. The abdomen is soft, and the uterus is nontender. On speculum examination, there is pooling of clear, nitrazine-positive fluid in the vagina; the cervix is visibly closed. Fetal heart rate tracing shows a baseline of 150/min, accelerations, and no decelerations. There are irregular contractions on tocodynamometry. Transabdominal ultrasound shows an anterior placenta and an amniotic fluid index of 3 cm. Which of the following most likely contributed to this patient's presentation?
A) Asymptomatic bacteriuria
B) Maternal age
C) Multiparity
D) Placenta location
E) Previous spontaneous abortion
F) Prior cesarean delivery
Correct Answer:
Verified
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