A 40-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 2, at 33 weeks gestation comes to labor and delivery due to leakage of fluid. The patient has had intermittent leakage of clear vaginal fluid for the past few hours but no vaginal bleeding. She has had some irregular contractions for the past few weeks, but they are nonpainful. Fetal movement has been normal. The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus and had polyhydramnios on her most recent fetal ultrasound. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 70/min. BMI is 35 kg/m2. Fetal heart rate tracing shows a baseline of 140/min with moderate variability and multiple accelerations. Tocodynamometer reveals contractions every 15-18 minutes. The uterus is nontender. Speculum examination shows a closed cervix and clear fluid in the posterior fornix of the vagina. There is ferning on microscopy. A transabdominal ultrasound reveals a fetus in vertex presentation surrounded by minimal amniotic fluid; the deepest vertical pocket is 1 cm. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Amnioinfusion
B) Magnesium sulfate
C) Nifedipine tocolysis
D) Prophylactic latency antibiotics
E) Vaginal progesterone
Correct Answer:
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