A 34-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 2, at 30 weeks gestation comes to the clinic for evaluation of an abdominal bulge. The patient first noticed this bulge 2 weeks ago when she was sitting up to get out of bed. She also sees the mass when she is straining to defecate or picking up her toddler. The patient has no nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain, and her last bowel movement was 2 days ago. She has chronic constipation for which she takes a daily stool softener, and her prior surgeries include 2 cesarean deliveries. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 124/76 mm Hg, and pulse is 92/min. Prepregnancy BMI is 19 kg/m2. When the patient sits up and performs the Valsalva maneuver, a nontender abdominal mass protrudes between the rectus abdominis muscles. When the patient is placed supine, no fascial defects are palpated. Bowel sounds are normoactive and there is no rebound or guarding. The uterus is nontender and the fundal height is 30 cm. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Abdominal binder placement
B) Immediate surgical repair of defect
C) MRI of the abdomen/pelvis
D) Observation and reassurance
E) Small bowel follow-through
Correct Answer:
Verified
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