A 32-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 2, at 35 weeks gestation comes to the hospital due to frequent, painful uterine contractions. The patient started to have contractions an hour ago but has had no vaginal bleeding or leakage of fluid. She was incidentally diagnosed with a shortened cervix on routine anatomy ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation, for which she uses vaginal progesterone. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and has had no previous surgeries. Her prior pregnancies ended in term vaginal deliveries. Blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 80/min. Fetal heart tracing is normal. The tocodynamometer shows contractions every 6 minutes. A visibly dilated cervix is noted on speculum examination with no evidence of membrane rupture. On digital cervical examination, the cervix is 4 cm dilated and 90% effaced with the fetus at −3 station. Ultrasound examination reveals the fetus in vertex presentation. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) 17-hydroxyprogesterone
B) Emergency cervical cerclage
C) Expectant management
D) Magnesium sulfate
E) Nifedipine
Correct Answer:
Verified
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