A 25-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, comes to the office due to malodorous vaginal discharge for the past 2 weeks. She tried over-the-counter topical vaginal cleansers with no improvement of her symptoms. Four weeks ago, the patient had a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery complicated by a third-degree laceration, which was repaired with absorbable suture. After delivery, vaginal packing was placed for 24 hours to tamponade the traumatized vaginal tissue. Her lochia stopped a week ago, and she has had no additional bleeding. Vitals signs are normal. On pelvic examination, the perineum is intact, and there is a small, dark red, velvety area on the posterior vaginal wall with an associated malodorous, tan-brown discharge. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Bartholin gland abscess
B) Rectovaginal fistula
C) Retained vaginal gauze
D) Trichomoniasis
E) Vesicovaginal fistula
F) Vulvovaginal candidiasis
Correct Answer:
Verified
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