A 34-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 26 weeks gestation comes to the emergency department due to intermittent leakage of fluid for the past 6 hours. She has had no vaginal bleeding or contractions. The patient's previous pregnancy was complicated by preterm prelabor rupture of membranes at 29 weeks gestation; she delivered at 34 weeks gestation after inpatient management with corticosteroids and latency antibiotics. Temperature is 39.4 C (103 F) , blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 114/min. Fetal heart rate is 170/min. The uterus is tender to palpation. On speculum examination, purulent amniotic fluid emerges from the cervix with Valsalva and turns the nitrazine paper blue. The cervix is visibly closed. Transabdominal ultrasound shows a vertex fetus consistent with gestational age. The amniotic fluid index is 8 cm. In addition to antibiotics, which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Fetal fibronectin and lung maturity testing
B) Expectant management
C) Immediate induction of labor
D) Outpatient monitoring and bed rest
E) Serial fetal ultrasounds and amnioinfusion
Correct Answer:
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