A 27-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 10 weeks gestation comes to the office for an initial prenatal visit. The patient has had no cramping or vaginal bleeding. She was not expecting this pregnancy because she had an uncomplicated term vaginal delivery 6 months ago and breastfed for the first 4 months postpartum. She is taking a daily prenatal vitamin and has no chronic medical conditions. Blood pressure is 126/80 mm Hg and pulse is 76/min. BMI is 24 kg/m2. The abdomen is soft, nontender, and nondistended. Pelvic ultrasound reveals a singleton intrauterine pregnancy at 10 weeks gestation with a fetal heart rate of 165/min. Hemoglobin is 10.4 g/dL. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following pregnancy-related complications?
A) Gestational diabetes mellitus
B) Postterm pregnancy
C) Preeclampsia
D) Preterm prelabor rupture of membranes
E) Protracted labor course
Correct Answer:
Verified
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