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A 36-Year-Old Woman, Gravida 3 Para 2, at 29 Weeks

Question 416

Multiple Choice

A 36-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 2, at 29 weeks gestation comes to labor and delivery due to clear vaginal discharge.  The patient has had increasing nonmalodorous discharge for the past 2 days with no associated vaginal bleeding or contractions.  She has no vulvovaginal pruritus, dysuria, or hematuria.  The patient has been treated multiple times during this pregnancy for symptomatic bacterial vaginosis but has had no other complications.  She has no chronic medical conditions.  Her prior pregnancies ended in term vaginal deliveries.  She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.  Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 68/min.  Fetal heart rate is 130/min.  The uterus is nontender and has no palpable contractions.  A speculum examination shows clear fluid in the posterior fornix that increases with Valsalva.  Microscopy shows ferning and squamous epithelial cells with no stippling.  Ultrasound shows a cephalic fetus, an anterior placenta, and minimal amniotic fluid with an amniotic fluid index of 3 cm.  This patient is at increased risk for which of the following complications?


A) Placenta accreta
B) Placenta previa
C) Placental abruption
D) Uterine rupture
E) Vasa previa

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