A healthy 22-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, comes to her physician for a routine prenatal visit. She is 28 weeks pregnant, feeling well, and gaining weight appropriately. She has no bleeding, fluid leakage, or uterine contractions and feels fetal movement. The patient recently ended her relationship with the father of the baby. Her first trimester prenatal testing results were as follows:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step at this gestational age in pregnancy?
A) Anti-D immune globulin
B) Group B Streptococcus culture
C) HIV antibody test
D) Rubella immunization
E) Urine culture
Correct Answer:
Verified
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