A 72-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband with confusion and slurred speech. She was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus a year ago, and her medication regimen has been changed multiple times due to medication intolerance. Three weeks ago, the patient was started on a single-drug diabetes regimen. Her husband reports that since that time, her home glucose readings have been "all over the place," and she has "stopped eating junk food to try to smooth them out." Medical history is notable for hypertension and hyperlipidemia, for which she takes lisinopril, chlorthalidone, and atorvastatin. The patient also has osteoarthritis of the knees and has been intermittently taking an over-the-counter medication for pain. She does not use tobacco or alcohol. Blood pressure is 142/70 mm Hg and pulse is 101/min and regular. Mucous membranes are moist. Bedside capillary blood glucose is 35 mg/dL. An intravenous glucose solution is administered, with rapid improvement in her mental state. A basic metabolic panel shows serum potassium of 3.8 mEq/L and serum creatinine of 1.7 mg/dL, with an estimated glomerular filtration rate of 50 mL/minute/1.73 m2; serum creatinine 2 weeks earlier was 1.3 mg/dL. Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused this patient's condition?
A) Canagliflozin
B) Linagliptin
C) Metformin
D) Nateglinide
E) Pioglitazone
Correct Answer:
Verified
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