A 64-year-old woman comes to the physician because she has had bilateral foot numbness and burning for the past three months. The symptoms are especially bothersome at night. She has a history of hypertension, coronary artery disease, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. She had an anterior wall myocardial infarction two years ago, which was treated with angioplasty and stenting of the left anterior descending artery. An echocardiogram obtained one year ago revealed an ejection fraction of 40%. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. Her medications include metoprolol, furosemide, glyburide, atorvastatin, aspirin, and enalapril. She has been on oral hypoglycemic medications for the last ten years. Her blood pressure is 142/82 mmHg and her heart rate is 63/min. Her BMI is 34 kg/m2. Physical examination shows intact skin over both feet and 2+ peripheral pulses. The patient returns two months later for follow-up. She has persistent symptoms and complains of poor sleep. Her last HbA1c was 7.9% and creatinine was 0.9 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows trace proteinuria. Which of the following is the best management option for this patient?
A) Duloxetine
B) Hydrocodone
C) Indomethacin
D) Prednisone
E) Sertraline
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q226: A 29-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Q227: A 26-year-old man comes to the office
Q228: A 74-year-old man is brought to the
Q229: A 31-year-old man with diabetes comes to
Q230: A 58-year-old man comes to the physician
Q232: A 44-year-old male was found to have
Q233: A 7-year-old boy is brought to the
Q234: A 68-year-old Caucasian female is brought to
Q235: A 72-year-old woman is brought to the
Q236: A 58-year-old woman comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents