A 29-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 26 weeks gestation comes to the office for a routine prenatal visit. She reports no contractions, vaginal bleeding, or leakage of fluid. There is good fetal movement. The patient has a history of polycystic ovarian syndrome. This pregnancy was conceived through ovulation induction but has otherwise been uncomplicated. She has no other chronic medical conditions or previous surgeries. The patient walks for 30-45 minutes 5 days a week. She takes prenatal vitamins and folate supplementation daily. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg and pulse is 89/min. BMI is 27 kg/m2. Fetal heart tones are 150/min. Fundal height is 28 cm. Third-trimester laboratory results are as follows:
Testing of which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Fasting blood glucose level
B) Glucose tolerance
C) Hemoglobin A1c level
D) No further testing is indicated
E) Serial fasting and postprandial glucose levels
Correct Answer:
Verified
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