A 29-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, had an uncomplicated vaginal delivery 10 minutes ago. The patient underwent an induction of labor at 39 weeks gestation for insulin-controlled gestational diabetes mellitus. An insulin drip was utilized for glycemic control during labor. The patient was diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus at 26 weeks gestation and started on an insulin regimen at 29 weeks gestation when glycemic control via dietary modification failed. Her pregnancy was otherwise uncomplicated. She has no other medical conditions or previous surgeries. The patient is also taking a prenatal vitamin and folate supplementation. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. The patient currently has minimal vaginal bleeding; she has no fever, chills, or abdominal pain. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 88/min. Prepregnancy BMI was 23 kg/m2. Physical examination reveals a nontender uterine fundus that is 1 cm above the umbilicus. Bilateral lower extremities have trace edema but no calf tenderness. Blood glucose level 1 hour prior to delivery was 118 mg/dL. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Continue pregnancy insulin regimen
B) Decrease pregnancy insulin regimen by half and add sliding scale
C) Start oral anti-glycemic medication
D) Stop insulin regimen and order glucose tolerance test at postpartum visit
E) Stop insulin regimen and order hemoglobin A1c at postpartum visit
Correct Answer:
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