A 23-year-old man is hospitalized for acute gastroenteritis with mild dehydration. He has type 1 diabetes mellitus that was diagnosed 6 years ago and is managed with a regimen that includes insulin glargine at bedtime and insulin aspart before meals. The patient adjusts the dose of insulin aspart based on the size of his meals and premeal glucose levels. His recent glycemic control has been excellent, with a hemoglobin A1c of 7.0%. The patient had an episode of diabetic ketoacidosis a year ago but has no chronic complications of diabetes. His glucose levels occasionally drop below 70 mg/dL, mainly at night, but he has had no symptoms or loss of consciousness due to hypoglycemia. Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) , blood pressure is 114/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 100/min. Oral mucous membranes are dry, but physical examination is otherwise normal. Initial laboratory tests show a normal anion gap and a blood glucose level of 80 mg/dL. Due to frequent vomiting, the patient is able to tolerate only limited amounts of fluids or food orally, and he is started on intravenous fluids. Which of the following is the most appropriate strategy for managing this patient's insulin while he is in the hospital?
A) Continue current doses of insulin glargine and short-acting insulin
B) Decrease insulin glargine and give short-acting insulin based on glucose levels
C) Give only short-acting insulin and discontinue insulin glargine
D) Hold insulin and continue to monitor blood glucose every 6 hours
E) Initiate insulin infusion and monitor glucose every 1-2 hours
Correct Answer:
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