A 66-year-old man is found to have bilateral breast enlargement during a routine office visit. The patient reports no breast pain/discomfort, headaches, or vision abnormalities but has had decreased libido and "low energy" for the past several months. Medical problems include hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and osteoarthritis. The patient takes chlorthalidone, simvastatin, and acetaminophen as needed. He does not use over-the-counter or herbal supplements. The patient drinks 1 or 2 alcoholic beverages during social events and does not use tobacco or illicit drugs. He is married and has several adult children. Family history is notable for breast cancer in a maternal aunt. Vital signs are within normal limits. BMI is 32 kg/m2. Examination shows normal body hair distribution and no skin rash. Breast examination reveals 2-cm, round, and firm tissue behind the areolas bilaterally with no overlying skin changes or nipple discharge. There are no enlarged lymph nodes. External genitalia are normal in size and appearance, and no testicular masses are present. The remainder of the physical examination is normal. Laboratory results are as follows:
Serum chemistry panel and liver aminotransferases are within normal limits, and serum testosterone level is unchanged on repeat testing. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's breast abnormality?
A) Adenocarcinoma of the breast
B) Cirrhosis of the liver
C) Medication adverse effect
D) Physiologic gynecomastia
E) Pseudogynecomastia
Correct Answer:
Verified
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