A 70-year-old woman is brought to the hospital for worsening shortness of breath and a cough productive of mucoid sputum. She has no fever or chest pain. The patient has a history of moderate chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and has had 2 previous hospitalizations for acute COPD exacerbation over the past year. Her other medical problems include right nephrectomy for renal cell carcinoma 7 years ago, hypertension, chronic low back pain, and degenerative arthritis. Her current medications include tiotropium, albuterol, amlodipine, hydrochlorothiazide, fentanyl patch, and acetaminophen. She has a 48-pack-year smoking history.
The patient is alert and in moderate respiratory distress. Her temperature is 37 C (98.6 F) , blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, pulse is 98/min, and respirations are 20/min. Oxygen saturation is 86% on room air and 96% on 3 L oxygen. Her BMI is 28 kg/m2. Cardiopulmonary examination shows decreased breath sounds, wheezes with prolonged expiration, and distant heart sounds. There is no jugular venous distension or peripheral edema.
Chest x-ray shows hyperinflation without infiltrates. The patient is started on systemic corticosteroids, bronchodilators, and antibiotics. Four hours later, she appears mildly lethargic but is able to follow commands and cough up secretions. Respirations are 28/min and oxygen saturation is 96% on 3 L oxygen. Her arterial blood gas shows a pH of 7.20, PaCO2 of 70 mm Hg, and PaO2 of 74 mm Hg.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Continuous nebulized albuterol
B) Intubation and mechanical ventilation
C) Nasal cannula oxygen to target SpO2 of 90%
D) Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation
E) Removal of the fentanyl patch
Correct Answer:
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