A 68-year-old woman is evaluated in the surgical intensive care unit for hypertension. She was admitted to the ICU two days ago after undergoing extensive resection and anastomosis for a small bowel infarction. Her abdomen has not been closed due to the possibility of further surgery if additional infarction ensues. She is currently intubated and supported by mechanical ventilation. She is being treated with broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics, fentanyl, and midazolam. She has a history of persistent atrial fibrillation and has been noncompliant with anticoagulation. Her other medical problems include hypertension, congestive heart failure, coronary artery disease, chronic low back pain secondary to osteoporotic spine fractures, and hyperlipidemia.
She appears diaphoretic and mildly agitated. Her temperature is 38.3 C (101 F) , blood pressure is 200/120 mm Hg, pulse is 120/min, respiratory rate is 35/min, and oxygen saturation is 98%. The ventilator settings are as follows:
Arterial blood gas analysis shows a pH of 7.49, a PaCO2 of 28 mm Hg, and a PaO2 of 90 mm Hg. Serum creatinine is 1.4 mg/dL and lactate level is 1.2 mg/dL.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Decrease tidal volume
B) Increase fentanyl dose
C) Start intravenous nitroprusside infusion
D) Start neuromuscular blocking agents
E) Switch to pressure-cycled ventilation
Correct Answer:
Verified
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