A 48-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to fever and cellulitis of the distal right lower extremity. He was initially seen in a clinic 2 days earlier and treated with oral clindamycin, but he subsequently developed increasing erythema. Medical history is notable for nondeforming rheumatoid arthritis treated with hydroxychloroquine and a similar episode of cellulitis 2 years ago that resolved with a course of cefazolin. The patient is admitted to the hospital and treated with cefazolin and leg elevation. His fever rapidly resolves and the area of erythema recedes. However, 3 days after admission, serum creatinine increases from 1.2 to 1.9 mg/dL.
Urinalysis results are as follows:
Urine stain for eosinophils is negative.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Acute interstitial nephritis
B) Immune complex glomerulonephritis
C) Prerenal acute kidney injury
D) Renal vasculitis
E) Rheumatoid involvement of the kidney
Correct Answer:
Verified
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