A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is brought to the intensive care unit after being intubated for respiratory failure. She initially presented to the emergency department with severe respiratory distress, fever, chills, and productive cough. She smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day and has been intubated in the past for COPD exacerbation. Her other medical problems include hypertension, coronary artery disease, congestive heart failure, and colonic diverticulosis. She has no history of diabetes mellitus.
Her leukocyte count is 15,000 cells/µL and her serum creatinine is 1.2 mg/dL. Liver function tests are within normal limits. Chest x-ray shows bilateral lower lobe infiltrates. She is started on high-dose methylprednisolone, inhaled bronchodilators, and antibiotics. Over the following 12 hours, her fingerstick blood glucose levels ranged from 210 to 280 mg/dL.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Insulin infusion with target blood glucose level of 80-110 mg/dL
B) Insulin infusion with target blood glucose level of 140-180 mg/dL
C) Insulin infusion with target blood glucose level of 180-200 mg/dL
D) Metformin via nasogastric tube and rapid weaning of corticosteroids
E) Sliding scale of subcutaneous insulin for blood glucose levels exceeding 150 mg/dL
Correct Answer:
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