Solved

A 56-Year-Old Man Comes to the Office Due to a 3-Month

Question 34

Multiple Choice

A 56-year-old man comes to the office due to a 3-month history of upper abdominal discomfort.  CT scan of the abdomen reveals a cystic pancreatic lesion; an endoscopic ultrasound-guided biopsy is planned.  Medical history is significant for hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and a bicuspid aortic valve that was diagnosed at age 24.  The patient underwent an aortic valve replacement with a bileaflet mechanical aortic valve at age 44 due to symptomatic aortic regurgitation.  He takes warfarin daily and attends regular follow-up visits at an anticoagulation clinic.  He had an episode of epistaxis a year ago that required nasal packing for 2 days.
ECG is unremarkable.  An echocardiogram 2 months ago showed normal left ventricular size and function with an ejection fraction of 60%.  The mechanical aortic valve prosthesis had normal leaflet motion, and there was mild mitral and tricuspid regurgitation.  The aortic root size was normal.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?


A) Continue current warfarin regimen and proceed with biopsy
B) Explore alternate options to diagnose this patient's disease
C) Stop warfarin, give subcutaneous vitamin K, then proceed with biopsy
D) Stop warfarin, start intravenous heparin when INR <1.5, then proceed with biopsy
E) Stop warfarin, then proceed with biopsy when INR <1.5

Correct Answer:

verifed

Verified

Unlock this answer now
Get Access to more Verified Answers free of charge

Related Questions

Unlock this Answer For Free Now!

View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions

qr-code

Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks

upload documents

Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents