A 56-year-old man comes to the office due to a 3-month history of upper abdominal discomfort. CT scan of the abdomen reveals a cystic pancreatic lesion; an endoscopic ultrasound-guided biopsy is planned. Medical history is significant for hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and a bicuspid aortic valve that was diagnosed at age 24. The patient underwent an aortic valve replacement with a bileaflet mechanical aortic valve at age 44 due to symptomatic aortic regurgitation. He takes warfarin daily and attends regular follow-up visits at an anticoagulation clinic. He had an episode of epistaxis a year ago that required nasal packing for 2 days.
ECG is unremarkable. An echocardiogram 2 months ago showed normal left ventricular size and function with an ejection fraction of 60%. The mechanical aortic valve prosthesis had normal leaflet motion, and there was mild mitral and tricuspid regurgitation. The aortic root size was normal.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Continue current warfarin regimen and proceed with biopsy
B) Explore alternate options to diagnose this patient's disease
C) Stop warfarin, give subcutaneous vitamin K, then proceed with biopsy
D) Stop warfarin, start intravenous heparin when INR <1.5, then proceed with biopsy
E) Stop warfarin, then proceed with biopsy when INR <1.5
Correct Answer:
Verified
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