A 44-year-old man comes to the physician because of muscle cramps and stiffness involving his legs over the last two weeks. He also describes fatigue and needs to rest after walking several blocks. His other medical problems include type 2 diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, and migraine headaches. His medications include metformin, low-dose aspirin, glyburide, and simvastatin. He was recently started on daily verapamil for migraine prevention. He has a strong family history of diabetes and coronary artery disease.
His blood pressure is 123/70 mm Hg and his pulse is 70/min. His BMI is 31 kg/m2. There is no muscle tenderness on physical examination. Muscle strength is 5/5 bilaterally and deep tendon reflexes are 2+ and symmetrical bilaterally.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
A) Antinuclear antibodies and ESR
B) Electromyography
C) Lactic acid level
D) Morning serum cortisol
E) Thyroid function tests
Correct Answer:
Verified
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