A 76-year-old woman comes to the office for preoperative evaluation. She has had worsening pain in her left knee with occasional swelling over the past several months. Her daughter has had to assist with household chores because the patient has difficulty using the stairs due to pain. Two weeks earlier she was seen by an orthopedic surgeon who recommended knee replacement surgery. The patient has no chest pain, although she admits she is not very active due to the knee pain. She also has no palpitations or shortness of breath while lying flat. Her other medical problems include obesity, hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, obstructive sleep apnea, and history of peptic ulcer disease. Current medications include metformin, atorvastatin, and lisinopril. The patient monitors her blood glucose at home, with values around 110 mg/dL. She had a femoral hernia surgery 12 years ago without complications.
Blood pressure is 132/76 mm Hg and pulse is 72/min. BMI is 33.1 kg/m2. Examination shows normal jugular venous distension and no carotid bruits. Heart sounds are normal and the lungs are clear to auscultation.
Hemoglobin is 12.2 g/dL, creatinine is 0.7 mg/dL, and potassium is 4.3 mEq/L. ECG shows normal sinus rhythm with T-wave inversion in lead III.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step before surgery?
A) Coagulation profile
B) Dipyridamole myocardial perfusion imaging
C) Exercise stress test
D) No further testing
E) Transthoracic echocardiogram
Correct Answer:
Verified
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