A 20-year-old man comes to the office for a sports physical. The patient has played varsity basketball since high school. He has had no chest pain, shortness of breath, palpitations, or fainting spells. He has no medical history and takes no medications. There is no family history of sudden death.
Blood pressure is 115/75 mm Hg, pulse is 56/min, and BMI is 22 kg/m2. The patient is in no distress. The apical precordial impulse is hyperdynamic. There is a normal S1 and S2, and an S4 is heard. He has a 2/6 systolic murmur at the left sternal border that increases with Valsalva maneuver. The lungs are clear to auscultation. The abdomen is soft and nondistended. Peripheral pulses demonstrate a rapid upstroke followed by a decline and secondary rise.
Transthoracic echocardiogram reveals interventricular septal thickness of 1.8 cm (normal: <1.1 cm) and posterior left ventricular wall thickness of 0.9 cm (normal: <1.1 cm) . Left ventricular ejection fraction is 75%. At rest, there is no left ventricular outflow gradient; however, Valsalva maneuver generates a gradient of 30 mm Hg.
Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient?
A) Alcohol septal ablation
B) Avoid high-intensity physical activity
C) Implantable cardioverter defibrillator
D) Metoprolol
E) Nifedipine
Correct Answer:
Verified
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