A 56-year-old man comes to the office due to 2 months of upper abdominal discomfort, bloating, and anorexia. Over this period, the patient has had no nausea, vomiting, or black/tarry stools but has lost 8 kg (17.6 lb) . He has a history of hypertension and gout. The patient is an active smoker with a 45 pack-year history and drinks alcohol occasionally. He traveled to Mexico 3 months ago for vacation.
Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, pulse is 86/min, and respirations are 12/min. BMI is 29 kg/m2. Scleral icterus is present. The abdomen is soft and nondistended. There is mild right upper quadrant discomfort on deep palpation. The liver edge is palpable 3 cm below the right costal margin. Stool testing for occult blood is negative. The remainder of the physical examination shows no abnormalities.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Abdominal ultrasound shows dilated intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts. The gallbladder is enlarged but no gallstones are visualized.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
B) CT scan of the abdomen
C) Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
D) MR cholangiopancreatography
E) Serology for viral hepatitis
Correct Answer:
Verified
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