A 24-year-old man comes to an urgent care center because of a 2 week history of watery diarrhea. The patient's stools are pale, voluminous, foul smelling, and non-bloody. He has lost 5 pounds (2.3 kg) over the past week despite eating normally. He denies fever or abdominal pain, but does admit to bloating and flatulence. He is an avid hiker, but denies recent travel.
His vital signs are within normal limits. His abdomen is soft and non-tender with normal bowel sounds. The remainder of his examination shows no abnormalities.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Absolute eosinophil count
B) Colonoscopy with biopsies
C) Fecal fat quantification
D) Stool microscopy
E) Tissue transglutaminase IgA antibody
Correct Answer:
Verified
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