A 65-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife due to severe upper-abdominal pain. The pain began suddenly 4 hours ago while he was watching television; it radiates to the back and is exacerbated by any movement. The patient has had gastroesophageal reflux disease for many years and has been taking over-the-counter antacids for symptom control. He also has hypertension, which is controlled with a thiazide diuretic. He walks 5 miles daily. The patient has been consuming large amounts of milk and other dairy products to relieve "burning" symptoms in his stomach. His temperature is 37.8 C (100 F) , blood pressure is 110/62 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 22/min. He lies flat and motionless on the bed. His mucous membranes are dry. Abdominal examination shows marked tenderness on superficial palpation. The patient does not allow any further palpation of the abdomen. Electrocardiogram shows sinus tachycardia. Further evaluation shows pneumoperitoneum on the upright chest x-ray. The patient's white blood cell count is 11,300/μL, creatinine is 1.1 mg/dL, and lactic acid level is 2.1 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Barium swallow
B) Intravenous antibiotics
C) Non-contrast chest CT scan
D) Octreotide infusion
E) Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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