A 67-year-old man comes to the physician with a 3-week history of right shoulder pain. The pain is dull, occurs mostly at night, and is poorly responsive to over-the-counter analgesics. He has had no trauma to his shoulder. His past medical history is significant for hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and chronic lower back pain. The patient is a lifetime nonsmoker. His last hemoglobin A1c was 8.2%, and prostate-specific antigen checked a few weeks ago was 22 ng/mL (normal <4 ng/mL) . On physical examination, the right shoulder has full range of motion and no local tenderness. There is decreased vibration sense at both ankles and first metatarsal heads. Digital rectal examination shows an enlarged nodular prostate. Plain radiographs of the right shoulder show no abnormalities. Results of a transrectal prostate biopsy are pending. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient's shoulder pain?
A) CT scan of the right shoulder
B) Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
C) Radioisotope bone scan
D) Refer for physical therapy
E) Trial of gabapentin
Correct Answer:
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