A 68-year-old woman comes to the office for follow-up of her anticoagulation therapy. Her medical problems include chronic atrial fibrillation, hypertension, congestive heart failure (CHF) NYHA II, and coronary artery disease. Her medications include daily warfarin 6 mg, lisinopril, furosemide, and carvedilol. She started taking an over-the-counter supplement 2 weeks ago to help increase her energy level but cannot recall the name. She denies bleeding episodes. Echocardiogram performed 2 months ago shows a dilated left atrium and moderately depressed left ventricular ejection fraction. Laboratory evaluation done early in the morning shows an international normalized ratio (INR) of 4.3 with a prothrombin time of 46 sec. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Administer low-dose (1-2.5 mg) oral vitamin K
B) Administer low-dose (1-2.5 mg) subcutaneous vitamin K
C) Transfuse 1 or 2 units of prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC)
D) Hold warfarin for 1 or 2 days and monitor INR
E) Administer high-dose (5-10 mg) intravenous vitamin K
Correct Answer:
Verified
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