A 36-year-old woman comes to the office due to recurrent dysuria. She also has had dull pain in her right flank and cloudy urine that contains blood. The patient has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections since becoming sexually active in high school. Over the last year, she has had 3 infections accompanied by fever. Her last urine culture grew Klebsiella pneumoniae. The patient is in a monogamous relationship. For contraception, she uses a diaphragm or her partner uses a condom, both with spermicidal coatings.
Temperature is 38.1 C (100.6 F) , blood pressure is 114/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 95/min. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Mild right costovertebral angle tenderness is present on percussion.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following would most likely treat the underlying cause of this patient's recurrent condition?
A) Discontinuation of spermicides
B) High-volume fluid intake and allopurinol
C) Postcoital antibiotic prophylaxis
D) Stone-removal procedure
E) Urinary alkalization
Correct Answer:
Verified
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